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by CareyBot

DEAR BENNY: My loan, with a failed institution, was sold by the FDIC. After two years of servicing my loan, the new lender demanded payment for an alleged late-charge balance transferred with my loan. However, it also stated that there were no history records. I was never late, and this year the new lender admitted the late charges were not verified and made a partial refund. The FDIC has been in the loop. Who's at fault in this scenario and what are my legal options? --Carl DEAR CARL: If the new lender does not have your loan history, then you are not obligated to pay any late fees. No court will force you to pay that which a lender cannot prove. If you already made the payment, and you have proof, demand that the lender either refund the balance or credit your loan balance with...